NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Exam for Walden University | Authentic Exam and Practice Questions Bank | Verified and Accurate with Detailed Solutions | Guaranteed Success
NURS6501 · Walden University
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NUR 230 MATERNAL NURSING EXAM 1 – 4 NCLEX- STYLE FOR GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS – ASSURED PASS WITH ISTANT DOWNLOAD PDF. 1. A nurse is teaching a client who is planning pregnancy about folic acid supplementation. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding? A. Folic acid prevents anemia during pregnancy B. Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects C. Folic acid improves fetal lung maturity D. Folic acid prevents postpartum hemorrhage Rationale: Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. 2. A pregnant client at 10 weeks’ gestation asks why nausea and vomiting are most severe in the first trimester. The nurse explains this is primarily due to: A. Increased progesterone levels B. Rapid rise in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) C. Increased estrogen metabolism D. Decreased gastric motility Rationale: hCG peaks in the first trimester and is strongly associated with nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. 3. Which finding during the first prenatal visit requires immediate follow-up by the nurse? A. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg B. History of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
C. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL D. Weight gain of 2 lb since last month Rationale: Preexisting diabetes places the pregnancy at high risk and requires early and intensive management. 4. A nurse is reviewing lab results of a pregnant client who is Rh-negative. Which result is most concerning? A. Negative antibody screen B. Hematocrit 34% C. Positive indirect Coombs test D. Platelet count 200,000/mm³ Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates maternal sensitization, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn. 5. Which assessment finding confirms uterine contractions rather than Braxton Hicks contractions? A. Irregular frequency B. Progressive cervical dilation C. Decrease with ambulation D. Mild discomfort Rationale: True labor contractions cause progressive cervical dilation and effacement. 6. The nurse teaches a pregnant client about physiologic anemia of pregnancy. Which explanation is correct? A. Iron stores are depleted B. Plasma volume increases more than red blood cell mass C. Red blood cells are destroyed faster D. Bone marrow suppression occurs
Rationale: Hemodilution occurs because plasma volume expands more than RBC mass, causing physiologic anemia. 7. A pregnant client at 28 weeks’ gestation receives Rho(D) immune globulin. The nurse explains this medication works by: A. Stimulating maternal antibody production B. Preventing maternal sensitization to Rh-positive cells C. Treating fetal anemia D. Increasing fetal red blood cell production Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin prevents maternal antibody formation against Rh-positive fetal blood cells. 8. A nurse is assessing a client in the second trimester. Which discomfort is expected? A. Urinary frequency B. Round ligament pain C. Nausea and vomiting D. Ptyalism Rationale: Round ligament pain commonly occurs in the second trimester due to uterine growth. 9. Which intervention is most appropriate for a client experiencing supine hypotensive syndrome? A. Increase IV fluids B. Position the client in a left lateral position C. Apply oxygen by mask D. Administer antihypertensive medication Rationale: Left lateral positioning relieves vena cava compression and improves venous return.
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