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APEA Pre-Predictor 2026/2027 (Actual Exam) – 850+ Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales | Complete NP Board Exam Study Guide ||Complete A+ Guide

HEAL100 Health Care — exam and revision material · Other

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Health Care exam material, 35 pages. Originally published on StudyMerit.

Pages
35
Academic year
2025/2026
Language
English

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— LL PDF | Download ! | DOWNLOAD I. 4 APEA PRE-PREDICTOR 2026/2027 (Actual Exam) Test Bank 850+ || Complete A+ Guide APlusscorers «+ APEA PRE-PREDICTOR 2026/2027 (Actual Exam) ++ 850+ Questions And Correct Detailed Answers With Rationales 100% Guaranteed Pass “Complete A+ Guide “* Multiple Choice (A-D) Questions & Single Choice, All Verified

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APEA PRE-PREDICTOR 2026/2027 (Actual Exam) Test Bank 850+ Questions And Correct Detailed Answers With Rationales 11Complete A+ Guide 1. Which of these instructions should a nurse include in the teaching plan for a client who had removal of a cataract in the left eye? a. "Forcefully cough and take deep breaths every two hours to keep your airway clear.” b. "Perform the prescribed eye exercises each day to strengthen your eye muscles." c. "Rinse your eyes with saline each morning to prevent postoperative infection.” d. "Take the prescribed stool softener to avoid increasing intraocular pressure.” Correct Answer: d. "Take the prescribed stool softener to avoid increasing intraocular pressure.” Rationale: Straining during a bowel movement via the Valsalva maneuver significantly increases intraocular pressure (IOP), which can compromise the surgical incision and intraocular structures after cataract surgery. Preventing constipation is a critical postoperative instruction. The other actions are not standard; coughing forcefully can increase IOP, eye exercises are not prescribed, and rinsing could introduce infection. 2. Which of these measures should a nurse include when planning care for a school- aged child during a sickle cell crisis episode? a. Monitoring for signs of bleeding. b. Providing pain relief. c. Administering cool sponge baths to reduce fevers. d. Offering a high calorie diet. Correct Answer: b. Providing pain relief. Rationale: The defining feature of a vaso-occlusive crisis (the most common type of sickle cell crisis) is severe pain caused by ischemic tissue injury from blocked microvasculature, Therefore, aggressive analgesia is the cornerstone of management. While monitoring for

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other complications (e.g., bleeding in a crisis is not typical), managing fever, and ensuring nutrition are supportive, pain relief is the immediate priority. 3. An adolescent has a nursing diagnosis of fatigue related to inadequate intake of iron- rich foods. Selection of which of these lunches by the client indicates a correct understanding of foods high in iron content? a. Peanut butter and jam sandwich. b. Chicken nuggets with rice. c. Tuna salad sandwich. d. Beefburger with cheese. Correct Answer: d. Beefburger with cheese. Rationale: Heme iron from animal sources, particularly red meat like beef, is the most bioavailable form of dietary iron. A beefburger is an excellent source. Peanut butter, processed chicken nuggets, tuna (which has some iron), and cheese provide significantly less iron, and it is in the non-heme form, which is less efficiently absorbed. 4. A client has been admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which of these laboratory test results supports this diagnosis? a. Elevated serum potassium level. Db. Elevated serum amylase level. ¢. Elevated serum sodium level. d. Elevated serum creatinine level. Correct Answer: b. Elevated serum amylase level. Rationale: Serum amylase (and lipase) are digestive enzymes released from damaged pancreatic acinar cells into the bloodstream during pancreatitis. A significant elevation (often 3 times the upper limit of normal) is a cardinal laboratory finding. Electrolyte imbalances (K+, Na+) and elevated creatinine (indicating renal function) may occur as complications but are not specific to the diagnosis of pancreatitis itself.

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