Test Bank For Pathophysiology of Disease: An Introduction to Clinical Medicine, 8th Edition
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Pathophysiology of Disease: An Introduction to
Clinical Medicine, Testbank/Studyguide
Chapter 1: Introduction
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a.
An inherited disorder
b.
A combination of specific etiological factors
c.
An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d.
Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
a.
subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b.
signs and symptoms of a disease.
c.
factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d.
early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
a.
precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b.
number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c.
predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d.
exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
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ANS: C
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a.
Swelling of the knee
b.
Fever
c.
Pain in the neck
d.
Red rash on the face
ANS: B
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the:
a.
causes of a disease.
b.
course of a disease.
c.
expected complications of a disease.
d.
manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
a.
hypertrophy.
b.
metaplasia.
c.
anaplasia.
d.
atrophy.
ANS: D
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic
figures would be called:
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a.
metaplasia.
b.
atrophy.
c.
dysplasia.
d.
hypertrophy.
ANS: C
8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
a.
apoptosis.
b.
ischemia.
c.
hypertrophy.
d.
necrosis.
ANS: B
9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:
a.
ischemia.
b.
gangrene.
c.
hypoxia.
d.
necrosis.
ANS: D
10. Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells
undergoing:
a.
hypertrophy.
b.
dysplasia.
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c.
atrophy.
d.
regeneration.
ANS: A
11. The term cancer refers to:
a.
dysplasia.
b.
hyperplasia.
c.
metaplasia.
d.
malignant neoplasm.
ANS: D
12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a.
Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b.
Ischemic damage to cells
c.
Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d.
Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
ANS: D
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a.
Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
b.
Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
c.
All types of cells die at the same rate.
d.
Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
ANS: B
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14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where:
a.
cell proteins have been denatured.
b.
cell are liquefied by enzymes.
c.
dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
d.
bacterial invasion has occurred.
ANS: C
15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
a.
an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b.
a preventive measure.
c.
a precipitating factor.
d.
a predisposing condition.
ANS: B
16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:
a.
latent stage.
b.
predisposing factor.
c.
incidence.
d.
precipitating factor.
ANS: D
17. The term homeostasis refers to:
a.
the causative factors in a particular disease.
b.
maintenance of a stable internal environment.
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c.
a condition that triggers an acute episode.
d.
a collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after
the original disease has been established?
a.
Symptoms
b.
Occurrence
c.
Manifestations
d.
Complication
ANS: D
19. Pathophysiology involves the study of:
a.
the structure of the human body.
b.
the functions of various organs in the body.
c.
functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d.
various cell structures and related functions.
ANS: C
20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
a.
The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
b.
The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
c.
Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs /symptoms
d.
The global search for emerging diseases
ANS: A
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21. Which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
1. Hypoxia
2. Exposure to excessive cold
3. Excessive pressure on a tissue
4. Chemical toxins
a.
1, 2
b.
2, 4
c.
1, 3, 4
d.
1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D
22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
a.
follow cancer screening guidelines.
b.
use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c.
participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d.
choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
ANS: C
23. The term disease refers to:
a.
the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b.
a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c.
the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d.
a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
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ANS: B
24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that
usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an):
a.
acute disease.
b.
multiorgan disorder.
c.
syndrome.
d.
manifestation.
ANS: C
25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
a The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
.
b If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and
.
return to its normal state.
c If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible
.
and the cell dies.
d Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
.
ANS: D
26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
a Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person
.
administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy.
b Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is
.
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receiving the experimental therapy.
c The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is
.
receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.
.
ANS: A
27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased
effectiveness and is safe, this is called:
a.
the placebo effect.
b.
evidence-based research.
c.
blind research studies.
d.
approval for immediate distribution.
ANS: B
28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is
called:
a.
acute.
b.
latent.
c.
chronic.
d.
manifestation.
ANS: A
29. The term prognosis refers to the:
a.
period of recovery and return to a normal state.
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b.
expected outcome of the disease.
c.
mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d.
typical collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to
as:
a.
atrophy.
b.
liquefactive necrosis.
c.
apoptosis.
d.
infarction.
ANS: D
31. During the evaluation process for a new therapys effectiveness and safety, a double blind
study may be conducted during:
a.
the first stage.
b.
the second stage.
c.
the third stage.
d.
any of these stages.
ANS: C
32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
a.
To predict the prognosis
b.
To determine treatments
c.
To develop preventive measures
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d.
To develop morbidity statistics
ANS: C
33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as:
a.
abnormal metabolic processes.
b.
certain food additives.
c.
genetic defects.
d.
localized hypoxia.
ANS: B
34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1. Past illnesses or surgeries
2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
3. Prescribed medication or other treatments
4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5. Current allergies
a.
1, 3
b.
2, 4, 5
c.
1, 3, 4
d.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ANS: D
35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease
within a given area is called a/an:
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a.
epidemic.
b.
exacerbation.
c.
morbidity.
d.
pandemic.
ANS: A
36. The term pathogenesis refers to:
a the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes involved in the
.
disease process.
b the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant neoplasm.
.
c the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a chronic
.
disease.
d the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis.
.
ANS: A
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Chapter 2: Genetic Disease
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following statements applies to the sex chromosomes?
a.
They are identified as XY in the female.
b.
They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype.
c.
They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.
d.
They are found only in the cells in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).
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ANS: B
2. What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individuals cell,
organized in pairs based on size and shape?
a.
Pedigree
b.
Punnett squares
c.
Karyotype
d.
Genotype
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ANS: C
3. What is characteristic of a congenital disorder?
a.
Genes are not involved.
b.
It is strictly a developmental anomaly.
c.
A cause is known.
d.
It is usually manifested in the neonatal period.
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ANS: D
4. What is the probability of two parents, both carriers of a defective recessive gene,
producing a homozygous child (with each pregnancy)?
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a.
0%
b.
25%
c.
50%
d.
75%
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ANS: B
5. In the case of an X-linked recessive disorder, a carrier mother and unaffected father
could produce a/an:
a.
normal female.
b.
affected female.
c.
male carrier.
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ANS: A
6. Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
a.
autosomal dominant disorder.
b.
multifactorial disorder.
c.
developmental defect.
d.
chromosomal disorder.
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ANS: D
7. Agents that cause damage during embryonic or fetal development are called:
a.
teratogenic.
b.
mutagenic.
c.
multifactorial agents.
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d.
polygenic agents.
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ANS: A
8. What is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder?
a.
Type AB blood
b.
Down syndrome
c.
Color blindness
d.
Cleft lip and palate
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ANS: D
9. Ultrasonography during pregnancy would be helpful in detecting fetal:
a.
enzyme deficits.
b.
structural anomalies.
c.
chromosomal defects.
d.
hormonal abnormalities.
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ANS: B
10. Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is TRUE?
a.
The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.
b.
All children with Down syndrome have the same organ defects and medical problems.
c.
The extent of cognitive impairment can be assessed at birth.
d.
The birth of a child with Down syndrome is only a risk to mothers over age 35.
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ANS: A
11. Which of the following statements applies to Huntingtons disease?
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a.
The effects are obvious at birth.
b.
There is a test for the defective gene.
c.
There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
d.
The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
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ANS: B
12. A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy; the father is unaffected. They
have one son with muscular dystrophy. Another male child is expected. The probability
of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:
a.
100%
b.
50%
c.
25%
d.
0%
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ANS: B
13. Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective
gene from:
a.
his father.
b.
his mother.
c.
both parents.
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a.
ANS: B
14. A father affected with hemophilia A, whose wife is unaffected, will pass on the
defective gene to:
all of his sons, who will be affected.
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b.
50% of his sons, who will be affected.
c.
all of his daughters, who will be carriers.
d.
50% of his daughters, who will be carriers.
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ANS: C
15. Which of the following are common manifestations of Down syndrome?
1. Congenital heart defect
2. Cleft lip and palate
3. Large protruding tongue
4. Limited intellectual development
a.
1, 2
b.
1, 3
c.
2, 4
d.
1, 3, 4
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ANS: D
16. A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful
substances is termed:
a.
autosome.
b.
genotype.
c.
meiosis.
d.
mutation.
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a.
ANS: D
17. A person with sickle cell trait that is heterozygous has:
an incomplete dominant gene.
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b.
a multifactorial condition.
c.
co-dominant genes.
d.
X-linked dominant trait.
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ANS: A
18. TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high-risk maternal
infections; TORCH stands for:
a.
toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, and
herpes.
b.
tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV.
c.
toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and HIV
d.
tuberculosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rabies, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
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ANS: A
19. Which statement applies to the effects of exposure to harmful substances during
embryonic life?
1. During the first two weeks, exposure will usually cause death of the embryo.
2. Organs or body structures may be altered by exposure during the first two months.
3. The effects of exposure depend on the stage of development at the time of exposure.
4. Metabolic abnormalities usually follow exposure to teratogens.
a.
1, 3
b.
2, 4
c.
1, 2, 3
d.
2, 3, 4
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ANS: C
20. Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy leads to increased risk of:
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a.
premature birth.
b.
respiratory problems.
c.
sudden infant death syndrome.
d.
A, B, and C
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ANS: D
21. Which term refers to prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid?
a.
Chorionic villus testing
b.
Preparing a family pedigree
c.
Amniocentesis
d.
Triple-screen test
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ANS: C
22. The laboratory practice of changing DNA sequences in microorganisms is called:
a.
the genotype.
b.
gene mutation.
c.
genetic engineering.
d.
gene therapy.
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ANS: C
23. The purpose of the Human Genome Project was to:
a.
map the nucleotide sequence and identify the genes on each human chromosome.
b.
study the common patterns of inheritance of single-gene disorders.
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c.
manipulate the sequence of DNA in microorganisms and animals.
d.
identify spontaneous alterations in genetic material caused by teratogens.
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ANS: A
24. Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:
a.
exposure to radiation.
b.
mercury in foods and water.
c.
drugs and alcohol.
d.
folic acid.
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ANS: D
25. Genes located at the same site on a pair of homologous chromosomes that are also
matched for function are called:
a.
alleles.
b.
genotypes.
c.
autosomes.
d.
phenotypes.
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ANS: A
26. Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?
a.
Many viruses
b.
Some heavy metals
c.
Certain chemicals
d.
All of the above
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